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PMI PMI-SP Exam - PMI Scheduling Professional Practice Test

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Questions & Answers for PMI PMI-SP

Showing 1-15 of 323 Questions

Question #1 - Topic 1

You are the project manager of the AHQ project. This project is scheduled to last for six
months and will require $345,000 to complete. If the project completes earlier than
scheduled, your organization will receive a bonus of $5,000 per day of early completion.
Management has asked you to develop an aggressive schedule to realize as much of the
bonus as possible, but management does not want you to increase the costs of the project
beyond $1,000 per day of the bonus realization. Which of the following approaches will
likely add costs to the project?

A. Adding leads to the project work

B. Fast tracking

C. Crashing

D. Using the critical chain method

Explanation:
Crashing adds labor to the project. This approach adds costs to the project because you
will have to pay for the added labor.
Answer option B is incorrect. Fast tracking allows entire phases to overlap in the project.
This approach adds risks to the project.
Answer option D is incorrect. The critical chain method considers the availability of project
resources.
Answer option A is incorrect. Adding lead time to activities allows activities to overlap and
does not add project costs.

Question #2 - Topic 1

You work as a project manager for ABC Inc. You are currently overseeing a project on a
high-rise building site. Your prime concern is to ensure that cranes are used effectively for
moving materials. You also have to ensure that delivery trucks do not have to wait in a
queue and that workers on the upper floors are able to get their deliveries on time. Which
type of scheduling would be required in such a scenario?

A. Critical path scheduling

B. Time-oriented scheduling

C. Resource-oriented scheduling

D. Network scheduling

Explanation:
Resource-oriented scheduling focuses on using and scheduling particular resources in an
effective manner. This type of scheduling should be used whenever there are limited
resources available for a project and the struggle for these resources between the project
activities is intense. As a result, delays are likely to arise in such cases, as actions must
wait until general resources become available. Resource-oriented scheduling is also
suitable in cases where unique resources are to be used, such as when there is only one
excavator available in an excavation operation.
Answer option B is incorrect. Time-oriented scheduling is a time-scheduling method that
focuses on determining the finishing time of a project. It also specifies the crucial
precedence relationships among the activities involved in the project. In time-oriented
scheduling, the appropriate time is allocated for the whole project through the successive
stages of the project life cycle.
Answer option A is incorrect. Critical path scheduling is a technique that calculates the
minimum completion time for a project along with the possible start and finish times for the
project activities.
Answer option D is incorrect. Network scheduling provides a basis for obtaining facts for
decision making.

Question #3 - Topic 1

Which of the following components of the change control system includes the
documentation, tracking systems, and defined approval levels necessary for authorizing
and controlling changes?

A. Scope Verification

B. Configuration Management System

C. Project Management Information System

D. Integrated Change Control

Explanation:
The change management system comprises several components that guide the change
request through the process. When a change request is made, it will affect the project
scope. The Configuration Management System evaluates the change request, and
documents the features and functions of the change on the project scope. What is
Configuration Management System? Configuration Management System is a subsystem of
the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented procedures
used to identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a product,
result, service, or component of the project. It also controls any changes to such
characteristics, and records and reports each change and its implementation status. It
includes the documentation, tracking systems, and defined approval levels necessary for
authorizing and controlling changes. Audits are performed as part of configuration
management to determine if the requirements have been met.
Answer option D is incorrect. Integrated Change Control, part of the change control system,
does not document changes to the features and functions of the project scope. It evaluates
the change's impact on eight knowledge areas: scope, time, cost, quality, human
resources, communication, risk, and procurement. What is Perform Integrated Change
Control? Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of reviewing all change
requests, approving changes, and controlling changes to the deliverables and
organizational process assets in a project. Perform Integrated Change Control has to do
with influencing the things that cause change, determining that the change is required or
has happened, and managing the change.
Answer option A is incorrect. Verify scope is a process of formalizing acceptance of the
completed project deliverables. It is an inspection- driven process the stakeholders will
complete to inspect the project scope deliverables. It is typically performed at the end of the
phas

Question #4 - Topic 1

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project requires the project team to
paint 1,500 hotel rooms. Your project team reports that it will take them approximately 4
hours to paint each hotel room. You reason, then, that it will take 6,000 hours to paint all of
the hotel rooms. What type of an estimate are you creating in this scenario?

A. Parametric estimate

B. Definitive estimate

C. Analogous estimate

D. Bottom-up estimate

Explanation:
This is an example of a parametric estimate. This estimate type uses a parameter, such as
four hours of painting per hotel room, and multiplies this value across the total number of
units, such as 1,500 rooms. A parametric estimate is an estimate that uses a parameter to
predict the costs of the project, such as cost per network drop or cost per software license.
Parametric estimating technique utilizes the statistical relationship that exists between a
series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables.
Answer option C is incorrect. An analogous estimate type uses a similar project's duration
as a basis for the current project's estimate duration.
Answer option B is incorrect. A definitive estimate type accounts for the duration or costs of
each work package in the WBS.
Answer option D is incorrect. A bottom-up estimate, also known as a definitive estimate,
accounts for the duration or costs of each work package in the WBS.

Question #5 - Topic 1

Laura is the project manager for her organization and management has requested her to
create a report on her project's performance. Laura needs to analyze her current project
performance and then compare it against what, in order to create a performance report?

A. Cost variances and Cost Performance Index

B. Scope baseline

C. Performance measurement baseline

D. Schedule variances, planned value, and the Schedule Performance Index

Explanation:
The performance measurement baseline, which can be comprised of cost, scope, and
schedule, is the foundation for creating a performance report.
Answer option B is incorrect. The scope baseline will only reflect the performance of the
scope, whereas performance reports typically need scope, time, and cost as its foundation.
Answer option A is incorrect. Cost variances and the cost performance index are cost
values that must be considered along with the scope performance and schedule
performance.
Answer option D is incorrect. Only reporting performance on the schedule is not enough for
a performance report. Laura should also report on scope and cost at a minimum.

Question #6 - Topic 1

Gary is the project manager of the NHF project, which is a part of a program in his
organization. According to the PMBOK, how will Gary provide feedback to programs and
portfolios?

A. Status meetings

B. Push communications

C. Regular communications

D. Status reports and change requests

Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, the project manager provides the feedback to programs and
portfolios by means of status reports and change requests that may impact other projects,
programs, or portfolios. The needs of the projects, including the resource needs, are rolled
up and communicated back to the portfolio level, which in turn sets the direction for
organizational planning. What is a status report? A status report is a narrative description
about a subject that is relevant to an organization. Typically, a user submits a status report
that was created for him by a manager. He can also create and submit his own
unrequested status report at any time. It is a collaborative feature specific to PW
A. Status report in PWA is a convenient way to exchange textual information with the team
members about the status of a project or items in addition to task progress, which a user
updates on the Tasks page. What are change requests? Change requests are requests to
expand or reduce the project scope, modify policies, processes, plans, or procedures,
modify costs or budgets or revise schedules. These requests for a change can be direct or
indirect, externally or internally initiated, and legally or contractually imposed or optional. A
Project Manager needs to ensure that only formally documented requested changes are
processed and only approved change requests are implemented.
Answer option C is incorrect. While regular communication is needed, this is not the best
answer for the question.
Answer option A is incorrect. Status meetings are a part of project communications, but do
not answer the question as completely as status reports and change requests.
Answer option B is incorrect. Push communications is one type of communicating mode
where the project manager pushes the information to recipients. This is not the best choice
for the question because there are other modes communicating as well.

Question #7 - Topic 1

You are the project manager of a project that has a budget of $675,000 and you have
completed 40 percent of the project work. Your project is supposed to be 60 percent
complete but you are actually only 40 percent complete. Due to some errors, however, you
have actually spent $335,000 of the budget. Management wants to know what the project's
cost performance index (CPI) is. What value do you report?

A. -$135,000

B. .67

C. .81

D. -$65,000

Explanation:
Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies. It is used in
trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost.
The CPI is calculated based on the following formula: CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual
Cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance,
whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The CPI value of 1 indicates
that the project is right on target. In this instances it is $270,000 divided by $335,000 for a
CPI of .81.
Answer option B is incorrect. .67 is actually the schedule performance index.
Answer option D is incorrect. -$65,000 is the cost variance for the project.
Answer option A is incorrect. -$135,000 is the schedule variance of the project.

Question #8 - Topic 1

Fred is the project manager of the NHA project. This project has a BAC of $2,456,900 and
is sixty percent complete. Fred has crashed the project, which has driven the project costs
to date to $1,525,140, but his project is five percent more complete than what was planned.
What is the cost variance for this project that Fred needs to report to management?

A. $122,845

B. -$51,000

C. -$85,000

D. Zero

Explanation:
The cost variance for the project is -$51,000. You can find the cost variance by using the
formula earned value minus planned value. In this instance, it is: CV = EV - AC = (0.60*
2,456,900) - 1,525,140 = -51,000
Answer option C is incorrect. -$85,000 is the project's variance at completion.
Answer option A is incorrect. $122,845 is the project's schedule variance.
Answer option D is incorrect. There is a cost variance on this project of -$51,000.

Question #9 - Topic 1

Which of the following individuals performs various management roles within an
administrative or functional area of the business, such as human resources, finance,
accounting, or procurement?

A. Seller

B. Operations manager

C. Functional manager

D. Project manager

Explanation:
The role of a functional manager is to perform various management roles within an
administrative or functional area of the business, such as human resources, finance,
accounting, or procurement. He is assigned his own permanent staff to carry out the
ongoing work. He should have a clear directive to manage all tasks within his functional
area of responsibility.
Answer option D is incorrect. A project manager is an expert in the field of project
management. He is responsible for the entire project from inception to completion. The
project manager leads the team and helps negotiate the multiple relationships within any
project whether with clients, team members, firm principals or any variety of partners and
functions as the hub of a project.
Answer option A is incorrect. Seller is also known as a vendor, supplier or contractor. They
are external company's elements that enter into a contractual agreement to provide
components or services necessary for the project.
Answer option B is incorrect. The role of operations manager is to perform various
management roles in a core business area, such as research and development, design,
manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance. The operations manager directly
deals with constructing and maintaining the saleable products or services of the enterprise.

Question #10 - Topic 1

Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables
that have been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown.
In her project, Beth is planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the
project work. This approach to project management planning is known as what?

A. Imminent activity management

B. Rolling wave planning

C. Predecessor-only diagramming

D. Decomposition

Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is a technique to plan and do the most imminent project work before
moving onto the details that are far off in the project schedule and project plan. Rolling
wave planning is a technique for performing progressive elaboration planning where the
work to be accomplished in the near future is planned in detail at a low level of the work
breakdown structure. The work to be performed within another one or two reporting periods
in the near future is planned in detail as work is being completed during the current period.
Answer option D is incorrect. Decomposition is the process of breaking down work
packages into the activity list.
Answer options A and C are incorrect. These are not valid project management terms.

Question #11 - Topic 1

Marty is the project manager of the recently completed NHK Project. The project was
deemed successful by the project customer and they have signed the formal acceptance
documentation. Marty has written the final project report, released the project team, and
completed the lessons learned documentation. What else should Marty do in the closure of
the NHK Project?

A. Archive the project records.

B. Summarize the project risks costs.

C. Summarize the project variance.

D. Close the project office.

Explanation:
The last duty of a project manager is to archive the project records as part of the
organizational process assets.
Answer option B is incorrect. The cost summary is included in the final project report.
Answer option C is incorrect. The project variance is included in the final project report as it
shows cost performance.
Answer option D is incorrect. A project office is an organization within the company that
oversees and supports project. Marty would not close the project office.

Question #12 - Topic 1

Ben is the project manager for his organization. His project has 26 stakeholders this week
and will have five additional stakeholders next week. How many more communication
channels will Ben's project have next week?

A. 140

B. 10

C. 325

D. 5

Explanation:
Ben's project will have 140 more communication channels because of the five additional
stakeholders. To solve the question, you will need to find the current stakeholder
communication channels first, which is (26*25)/2= 325, and then find the difference of the
number of channels for the five additional stakeholders. You can use the formula of N(N-1),
where N is the number of stakeholders. In this example, the formula would read: Total
number of communication channels that Ben will have next = ((31*30)/2)-((26*25)/2 =140
Answer option D is incorrect. Five is the number of additional stakeholders.
Answer option B is incorrect. 10 is the number of communication channels among just five
stakeholders.
Answer option C is incorrect. 325 is the number of current communication channels.

Question #13 - Topic 1

You are the project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to
document the holidays, weekends, and other corporate working hours, which will
supersede the project timings for your schedule. Which calendar will communicate to the
project stakeholders, when the project work will take place within the organization?

A. Project calendar

B. Resource calendar

C. Organizational calendar

D. Company calendar

Explanation:
The project calendar defines the working hours for the project, including any days that
project work will not happen due to the organizational calendar.
Answer option D is incorrect. The company calendar is not the correct choice for this
question.
Answer option C is incorrect. The organizational calendar is not the correct choice for this
question.
Answer option B is incorrect. The resource calendar defines whether resources the project
needs will be available. The resources include people, facilities, equipment, and other
things that project needs to be completed.

Question #14 - Topic 1

Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to
define the project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project
completion date, so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to
provide and account for all of the project activities, they should focus on one work package
in the WBS at a time. In order to start the decomposition of the project work packages into
activities, Gina will need all of the following except for which one?

A. Scope baseline

B. Organizational process assets

C. WBS

D. Enterprise environmental factors

Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, Gina will not need the WBS directly, but will rely on the scope
baseline. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in project management is a tool that defines
a project and groups the project's discrete work elements in a way that helps organize and
define the total work scope of the project. A WBS element may be a product, data, a
service, or any combination. WBS also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost
estimating and control along with providing guidance for schedule development and
control.
Answer option A is incorrect. The scope baseline is an input to define the project activities.
Answer option D is incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors are an input to define the
project activities.
Answer option B is incorrect. Organizational process assets are an input to define the
project activities.

Question #15 - Topic 1

You are the project manager of the GHE Project. You have identified the following risks
with the characteristics as shown in the following figure: How much capital should the
project set aside for the risk contingency reserve?

A. $142,000

B. $232,000

C. $41,750

D. $23,750

Explanation:
Contingency reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project
manager to deal with anticipated, but not certain, events. These events are "known
unknowns" and are part of the project scope and cost baselines. The contingency reserve
is calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact for the risk event value for each
risk event. The sum of the risk events equals the contingency reserve for the project. Note
that Risk D is a positive risk amount.
Answer option C is incorrect. This value is the sum of the risk events if you did not include
Risk D as a positive risk value.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is a sum of the risk event.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is a sum of the risk events without including Risk D as a
positive risk event.

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